Before the founding of the nation, India's industry was more "developed" than China's. However, after liberation, China quickly surpassed India, and now the gap is about 20 years (India's various indicators are quite close to China's in 2000). Why is this?

First, there is an interesting piece of data: during Mahatma Gandhi's time, India's industrial share was 15%, which was higher than China's, but the proportion of workers was only 0.3%, while China's was 0.5%.

This is because China's industry was bottom-up, primarily driven by local capital, focusing on light industry and handicrafts, with tea house owners playing such roles. In contrast, India's industry was top-down, grafted by the British, primarily focused on heavy industries like railways, telegraphs, and mining, with an export-oriented approach and a high degree of automation. However, India's rural areas did not form a linkage with urban industries, nor did they establish a broad social foundation.

As a result, China was able to continue developing on its existing industrial foundation after liberation, while India's original industry became "water without a source" and could not be sustained.

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